2008 International Mock Board Exam Coalition

International	University of Guelph, Guelph, 
Ontario, Canada	03/07/2008	
Pacific Northwest Region	Oregon Health & Science University
and Portland VA Medical Center	03/29/2008	
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention	Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, Atlanta, GA	04/26/2008	
Central Region	University of Texas
Southwestern Medical Center	05/04/2008	
Southeastern Region	North Carolina State University
	05/17/2008	
Northeastern Region	Yale University
	06/07/2008	
International
	Europe – Spain
(mock ECLAM exam)	06/07/2008	
International	Asia - Singapore	06/28/2008
	
Written Section – 250 Questions
55 Pages

2008 Written Exam Contributors
Cheryl Haughton, DVM, DACLAM - Central Region Coordinator
David Kurtz, DVM, PhD, DACLAM – Southeastern Region Coordinator
Stephanie Murphy, VMD, PhD, DACLAM - Pacific Northwest Region Coordinator
Yolanda Saavedra-Torres, DVM, PhD, DipECLAM – European Coordinator
Peter Smith, DVM, DACLAM - Northeastern Region Coordinator
J. P. Spurlock, DVM - CDCP Coordinator
Patricia V. Turner, DVM, DVSc, DACLAM – Canadian Coordinator
Ronald E. Banks, DVM, DACLAM
Rudy Beiler, DVM
Terry Blankenship-Paris, DVM, MS, DACLAM
Jodi Carlson, DVM
Diane B. Forsythe, DVM, DACLAM
Mary F. Grant, DVM, DACLAM
Angela King-Herbert, DVM, DACLAM
Robert Rose, DVM, DACLAM
José M. Sánchez-Morgado, DVM, MSc, PhD, DipECLAM, MRCVS
Jem Scott-Emuakpor, DVM
Paul Sikoski, DVM, DACLAM
Melanie Sorrell, DVM, MS
Mary Ann Vasbinder, DVM, DACLAM
Michael Wilkinson, DVM, CertLAS, PhD, DipECLAM, MRCVS
Julia Whitaker, MS, DVM, DACLAM
Jody Willis, DVM
Steve Wilson, VMD
1.	In mice, topical application of selamectin to the skin in a single spot at the base of the neck in front of the scapulae has been 100% effective in removing which of the following parasites?

a.	Aspicularis tetraptera, Myobia musculi, Myocoptes musculinus
b.	Radfordia ensifera, Myobia musculi, Myocoptes musculinus
c.	Aspicularis tetraptera, Myobia musculi, Radfordia ensifera
d.	Aspicularis tetraptera, Syphacia obvelata

2.	Which of the following may be a concern when using fenbendazole at therapeutic levels to treat pinworms in rodents?

a.  	Significant biological effects in reproductive studies
b.  	Significant biological effects in teratologic studies
c.  	Treatment-associated myelosuppression
d.  	Induction of certain hepatic cytochrome P450 isoforms
e.  	Toxicosis in young rodents due to immaturity of the blood-brain barrier

3.	Which of the following blood vessels can be used to collect blood in both frogs and salamanders?

a.	Ventral caudal vein
b.	Lingual venous plexus
c.	Midventral abdominal vein
d.	Dorsal lymph sac

4.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Agricultural Animals in Agricultural Research and Teaching, cold housing systems usually provide animals with a microenvironmental temperature that is no more than how many degrees above the outdoor temperature?

a.	1°C
b.	5°C
c.	10°C
d.	16°C
e.	27°C

5.	Which of the following opioid receptors is located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and provides spinal analgesia and sedation?

a.  	Delta
b.  	Kappa
c.  	Mu
d.  	Sigma

6.	Which of the following is a potential side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in laboratory animals?

a.  	Bradycardia
b.  	Constipation
c.  	Respiratory depression
d.  	Nephrotoxicity
e.  	Hypotension

7.	Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse benzodiazepine-induced sedation?

a.	Naloxone
b.	Yohimbine
c.	Flumazenil
d.	Idazoxan
e.	Phentolamine

8.  	Which of the following terms describes the ability of neuronal mechanisms to change and adapt to painful stimuli over a period of time?

a.	Allodynia
b.	Pain threshold
c.	Tolerance
d.	Plasticity
e.	Nociception

9.  	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, which of the following animals can be euthanized by maceration?

a.	1 week old poults
b.	Embryonic rodents
c.	Day-old poultry
d.	Tadpoles
e.	Fish

10.  	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, which of the following is considered to be a disadvantage of using maceration as a form of euthanasia?

a.	Death is almost instantaneous
b.	Special equipment is required
c.	Large numbers of animals can be killed quickly
d.	The method is safe for workers

11.  	In mice, which of the following euthanasia methods would accomplish the most rapid cessation of cortical activity as determined by electroencephalogram and visual evoked potentials?

a.	70% positive–pressure ventilation - CO2
b.	Intracardiac KCl injection
c.	Cervical dislocation
d.	All of the above
e.	None of the above

12.	In mice and rats, which of the following time periods is recommended as a period of stabilization after shipment to allow most physiological values to return to normal before initiation of research studies?  

a.  	1-2 days
b.	2-3 days
c.	3-4 days
d.	6-7 days
e.	2-3 weeks

13.	Which of the following should be components of an animal facility management program?

a.  	Personnel training
b.  	Occupational health and safety program
c.  	Written standard operating procedures
d.  	Written crisis and disaster management plan
e.  	All of the above

14.  	Which of the following organizations has published guidelines for selecting, evaluating, and using sharps disposal containers?

a.	CDC
b.	NIOSH
c.	OSHA
d.	NIH

15. 	The Occupational Safety and Health Administration limits employee exposure to noise to how many decibels measured on the A scale of a standard sound-level meter at slow response (dBA) averaged over an 8 hour work shift?

a.  	100 decibels
b.  	85 decibels
c.  	90 decibels
d.  	50 decibels
e.  	45 decibels

16.	All of the following adverse effects can occur when an employee’s exposure to noise exceeds OSHA limits EXCEPT?

a.  	Hearing loss
b.  	Difficulty in speaking
c. 	Loss of concentration
d.	Weight loss
e.  	Increased fatigue

17.  	Individual animals in which needed anesthetics, analgesics, sedatives and/or tranquilizers are withheld should be reported in which of the following columns of the annual report to the USDA (APHIS Form 7023)?

a.  	Column A
b.	Column B
b.  	Column C
d.  	Column D
e.  	Column E

18.  	In which of the following scenarios would it be acceptable to allow radios, alarms, or other sound generators to be used in animal rooms?

a.   	When a single species is housed in an animal room
b.  	When more than one species is housed in an animal room
c.  	Only when caretakers are working in an animal room
d.  	As part of an enrichment program
e.	Only in animal rooms in which livestock are housed

19.	Which of the following special features of a facility are secondary barriers aimed at preventing accidental release of hazards outside the facility and work environment?
	
a.	Airlocks
b.	Negative air pressure
c.	Air filters
d.	Redundant mechanical equipment with automatic switching
e.	All of the above

20.	With rare exceptions, which of the following is considered to be the most efficient type of animal facility to operate?

a.	A central facility with dedicated elevators to gain access to ground-level transportation
b.	A central facility on multiple floors arranged around dedicated elevators
c.	Satellite facilities that rely to varying degrees on a primary facility for some support services
d.	Multiple autonomous units that contain all the necessary animal care and use support services
e.	A single-story, centralized facility with direct access to ground-level transportation

21.	Which of the following provides the most effective method of controlling a rodent’s microbial environment?

a.  	Ventilated microisolation cages
b.  	Germfree isolators
c.  	Filter-top cages
d.  	Ventilated rodent racks
e.  	Biological safety cabinets

22.  	All of the following statements apply to AAALAC International accreditation status EXCEPT?

a.	Accreditation may be granted, withheld, or revoked by AAALAC
b.	Provisional status cannot exceed a time period of 36 months
c.	Accreditation may be revoked at any time for due cause
d.	If an institution is on Probationary status, deficiencies must be corrected within a time period not to exceed 12 months

23.	Which of the following types of biological safety cabinets would be appropriate for cell culture work?

a.  	Class I biosafety cabinets
b.	Class II biosafety cabinets
c.	Class I and II biosafety cabinets
d.  	None of the above

24.	Which of the following research facilities DOES NOT need to file its registration form with the Animal Care Regional Director for the state in which the research facility has its principle place of business?

a.  	National Science Foundation
b.  	Texas A & M
c.  	Arizona State University
d.  	Dartmouth College
e.  	Southlake Community College

25.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which of the following statements represents a situation in which an Animal Welfare Act license application would be denied?

a.	Failure of new applicant to pass a compliance inspection within 30 days of first inspection
b.	Failure of new applicant to pass 2 consecutive compliance inspections at least 30 days apart
c.	Failure of new applicant to pass 3 compliance inspections within 90 days of first inspection
d.	Failure of new applicant to pass any compliance inspection

26.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, failure to correct any significant deficiency within an animal care and use program or the animal research facilities within established deadlines must be reported in writing by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee within how many days?

a.	As soon as possible
b.	5-7 business days
c.	15 days
d.	30 days
e.	60 days

27.	When reporting any serious or continuing noncompliance with the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals or any serious deviation from the provisions of the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals to the Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare, which of the following types of information must be included in the final report?

a.  	Names of all parties involved and their funding sources
b.  	Estimated budget required to correct the deficiency
c.  	A reasonable and specific plan and schedule with dates for correction
d.  	Names of all individuals involved with correction of the deficiency

28.  	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, whose responsibility is it to ensure all scientists, research technicians, animal technicians, and other personnel involved in animal care, treatment, and use are qualified to perform their duties?

a.	Attending Veterinarian
b.	Institutional Official
c.	Research facility or institution
d.	Animal care department

29.   	Which of the following are levels of technician and management certification offered by American Association for Laboratory Animal Science?

a.	LAG, LAGT, ALAGT, 
b.	CMAR, LVT, LAT, ALAT
c.	LAT, LATG, ALAT, CMAR
d.	LAT, ALAT, LATG
e.	DVM, LAT, LATG, ALAT

30.   	Which of the following online resources provides training for technicians, veterinarians, managers, Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee members, and investigators working with animals in a research or education setting?

a.	Medilearn
b.	Agricola
c.	AALAS learning library
d.	ACLAM learning library
e.	AAALAC learning library

31.	Which of the following technician certification levels for the American Association for Laboratory Animal Science requires at least 3 years work experience in addition to a high school diploma, GED, BA/BS or higher degree?

a.  	ALAT, LAT, LATG
b.  	ALAT, LAT
c.  	LAT,  LATG
d.  	CMAR, ALAT
e.  	CMAR, LATG

32.	Most laboratory animal species are physiologically equipped to tolerate acute withholding of food for periods as long as how many hours without noteworthy signs of physiological or apparent psychological distress?

a.	6 hours
b.	12 hours
c.	24 hours
d.	36 hours
e.	48 hours

33.	In rats, which of the following techniques DOES NOT produce a model of traumatic spinal cord injury?

a.  	Contusion
b.  	Calibrated forceps compression
c.  	Weight drop
d.  	Middle cerebral artery occlusion
e.  	Aneurysm clip compression
 
34.	Which of the following animal HIV/AIDS models offers the opportunity to experimentally infect human tissues with HIV?

a.	SIV macaque
b.	Nude-hu chimeric mice
c.	SCID-hu chimeric mice
d.	Nude HIV mice
e.	Tg HIV mice
 
35.	Which of the following models is considered to be the most important nonhuman primate model of HIV disease as it results in clinical and immunologic manifestations closely mirroring human AIDS?

a.  	SIVsmm infection in sooty mangebeys
b.  	SIVcpz infection in chimpanzees
c.  	SIVcpz infection in bonobos
d.  	SIVmac infection in pigtail macaques
e.  	SIVmac infection of rhesus macaques

36.  	Which of the following ranges are considered to be reasonable values(s) for power?

a.	0 to 1
b.	0.1 – 0.3
c.	0 to 10
d.	0.7 – 0.9
e.	0.1 – 0.5

37.  	Which of the following statements best describes the alpha probability or p value?

a.	It is equal to the power of a study
b.	Its value is independent of the number of animals used in the study
c.	It is the error associated with concluding that a difference between experimental and control populations does not exist when there is a difference
d.	It is often arbitrarily set at 0.05 or 0.01 for biomedical experiments

38.	In which of the following tissues does mouse encephalomyelitis virus primarily replicate during a naturally acquired infection in mice?

a.	Neurons in the cerebrum
b.	Neurons in the cerebellum
c.	Intestinal mucosa
d.	Peripheral lymph nodes
e.	Neurons in the cervical spinal cord

39.	In rats, which of the following agents can be injected stereotaxically into the caudoputamen nucleus to induce a reproducible cerebral hemorrhage?

a.	Myelin basic protein
b.	Caspasin
c.	Myelin associated glycoprotein
d.	Collagenase
e.	Kainic acid

40.	All of the following animal species have been used in models of emesis EXCEPT?

a.	Suncus murinus
b.	Canis familiaris
c.	Mustela putoris furo
d.	Sus scrofa 
e.	Oryctolagus cuniculus

41.	Which of the following educational levels is the minimal educational requirement for an individual taking the American Association for Laboratory Animal Science LATG certification exam?

a.	High school diploma or GED
b.	Any AA/AS degree
c.	Any BA/BS degree
d.	ALAT certification

42.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, all of the following statements apply to Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) protocol review EXCEPT?

a.	A designated reviewer can withhold approval of a submitted protocol
b.	Significant changes to an IACUC approved protocol must be approved before they occur
c.	If a proposal may cause more than momentary or slight pain or distress to animals, the investigator must consult the attending veterinarian or his or her designee during protocol development
d.	Method of euthanasia must be approved by the IACUC

43.	Which of the following IS NOT a neoplasia model derived from rabbits?

a.	VX-2 carcinoma
b.	Brown Pearce carcinoma
c.	Spirocerca lupi induced carcinoma
d.	Greene melanoma

44.	The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention specifically designates infectious agents that have the greatest potential to induce significant negative impact on public health to which of the following classifications?

a.	Category A agents
b.	Category B agents
c.	Category C agents
d.	Class 1 agents
e.	Class 2 agents

45.	The Office of Research Integrity, which promotes integrity in biomedical and behavioral research supported by the U.S. Public Health Service, monitors institutional investigations of research misconduct and facilitates the responsible conduct of research through educational, preventive, and regulatory activities, is organized under which of the following departments or offices?

a.	U.S. Department of Health and Human Services
b.	Office of the Secretary of Health and Human Services
c.	Office of Public Health and Service
d.	All of the above
e.	None of the above

46.	Which of the following estrous cycle stages would yield a vaginal swab from a mouse with primarily neutrophils and some epithelial cells?

a.	Metestrus
b.	Estrus
c.	Proestrus
d.	Diestrus
e.	Anestrus

47.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which of the following individuals may request a full committee review by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) of a protocol describing proposed activities involving the care and use of animals?

a.	Primary investigator
b.	Any member of the IACUC
c.	Institutional official
d.	Any institutional employee
e.	Chair of the IACUC

48.	Which of the following inhalation anesthetics is inadequate if used by itself for momentary or brief anesthesia in rodents?  

a.	Nitrous oxide
b.	Halothane
c.	Isoflurane
d.	Carbon dioxide 
e.	Enflurane

49.	Which of the following ruminants is considered to be the most sensitive to xylazine?

a.	Cattle
b.	Goats
c.	Sheep
d.	Deer

50.	Which of the following variables is a serious limitation of using a power analysis to estimate sample size?

a.	Estimate of standard deviation
b.	Sidedness of the statistical test
c.	Effect size of scientific interest
d.	Chance of a false-positive result

51.	Experimental animals infected with which of the following viral agents should be housed under animal biosafety level 4 conditions?

a.	Hepatitis A
b.	Influenza
c.	Nipah
d.	Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
e.	Polio

52.	Which of the following ranges is considered to be an adequate face velocity for a chemical fume hood that is located properly within a laboratory?

a. 	60-80 ft/min
b. 	80-100 ft/min
c. 	100-120 ft/min
d. 	140-160 ft/min

53.	Which of the following breeds IS NOT an example of a miniature swine breed? 

a.	Yucatan 
b.	Hanford 
c.	Duroc 
d.	Gottingen 
e.	Hormel

54.	Membership on AAALAC's Council on Accreditation is for a period of how many years for each elected term?

a.	1 year
b.	2 years
c.	3 years
d.	4 years
e.	5 years

55.	Profuse diarrhea with high mortality is observed in a colony of Syrian hamsters within days of being treated for a mild skin condition with clindamycin.  What would be a likely etiology?

a.	Entamoeba muris
b.	Clostridium difficile
c.	Corynebacterium kutscheri
d.	Hamster parvovirus
e.	Dentostomella translucida

56.	According to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee shall conduct continuing review of each previously approved, ongoing activity at appropriate intervals, including a complete review at least how often?
 
a.	At least once every 3 months
b.	At least once every 6 months
c.	At least once every year
d.	At least once every 3 years
e.	At least once every 5 years

57.	According to Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, for which of the following species does indoor housing facilities need not be heated?

a.	Golden hamsters
b.	Guinea pigs
c.	Rabbits
d.	Dogs
e.	Peromyscus spp.

58.	Using NIH guidelines for determining per diem rates, indirect costs are also known as which of the following costs?

a.	Institutional facilities and administrative costs
b.	Office of Management and Budget (OMB) costs
c.	Non-allocable costs
d.	Over budget costs

59.  	Which of the following etiological agents, when inoculated into an animal host, has been shown to be a model for hepatocellular carcinoma in humans?

a.	Clostridium piliforme
b.	Woodchuck hepatitis virus
c.	Epstein-Barr virus
d.	Lucké tumor herpesvirus

60.  	According to the most recent edition of Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories, an agent that is associated with human disease via percutaneous injury, ingestion, or mucous membrane exposure should be handled in a laboratory at what biosafety level (BSL)?
	
a.	Open bench top with a sink
b.	BSL-1 with negative airflow into the lab and double-door access
c.	BSL-2 
d.	BSL-3 
e.	BSL-4

61.  	All of the following are discoveries associated with the use of sea urchins in biomedical research EXCEPT? 

a.	Meiosis 
b.	Sexual reproduction 
a.	Discovery of cell sorting by differential adhesion 
b.	Basic control of cell cycling 
c.	Cytokinesis

62. 	Which of the following etiologic agents HAS NOT been incriminated as a causative agent for canine infectious tracheobronchitis?

a.	Bordetella bronchiseptica
b.	Canine parainfluenza virus
c.	Canine adenovirus
d.	Canine calicivirus
e.	Canine herpesvirus

63.  	The white-tailed rat (Mystromys albicaudatus) belongs to same taxonomic family and subfamily as which of the following rodent species?

a.	Cricetus cricetus
b.	Peromyscus leucopus
c.	Octodon degus
d.	Rattus norvegicus
e.	Meriones unguiculatus

64. 	Which of the following etiologic agents can cause rat bite fever?

a.	Bartonella henselae
b.	Spirillium murinae
c.	Streptobacillus moniliformis
d.	Rickettsia typhi
e.	Streptococcus mutans

65.  	Administration of which of the following drugs in the drinking water of rats results in an increase of pain threshold and an increased consumption of treated water following surgery?

a.	Ibuprofen
b.	Acetaminophen
c.	Buprenorphine
d.	Ketoprofen
e.	Meloxicam

66.  	All accreditable units, with the exception of small or remote facilities, shall be initially evaluated by a team of not less than how many site visitors chosen by AAALAC International from among the members of and consultants to the Council?

a.	1
b.	2
c.	3
d.	4
e.	5

67.  	Which of the following anesthetic agents is a pharmaceutical-grade alternative to chemical-grade tribromoethanol for echocardiographic phenotyping in transgenic mice?

a.	Propofol
b.	Halothane
c.	Isoflurane
d.	Pentobarbital
e.	Ketamine plus xylazine

68.  	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, what is the minimum required cage height for hamsters?

a.	5 inches
b.	6 inches
c.	7 inches
d.	8 inches
e.	9 inches

69.  	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, thoracic compression is a conditionally acceptable method of euthanasia in which of the following species?

a.	Amphibians
b.	Birds
c.	Fish
d.	Reptiles

70.  	Which of the following statements IS NOT a characteristic of barbiturate anesthesia in rodents? 

a. 	Sedative hypnotics capable of producing general anesthesia with muscle relaxation
b.  	Wide therapeutic window
c. 	Minimal analgesic effects independent of their ability to affect consciousness
d.	Dose related cardiovascular and respiratory depression
e.	Repeated doses of short-acting barbiturates are cumulative, resulting in prolonged recovery

71.  	Which of the following statements best describes how environmental factors can affect the health of Danio rerio?

a. 	Ambient room temperature should be maintained at 5° to 10° below that of the containment system water
b. 	Water pH should be within 7.0-8.0 to facilitate higher concentrations of un-ionized NH3
c.   Elevated nitrite levels are relatively nontoxic
d.   Excessive levels of dissolved oxygen can be fatal if not corrected quickly
e.	No more than 8 hours of natural or fluorescent light should be provided on a daily basis

72.   	For what period of time must an official USDA tag be held after the death or euthanasia of a cat?

a.	1 year
b.	2 years
c.	3 years
d.	5 years
e.	There is no holding period for USDA tags in cats

73.   	Which of the following features IS NOT required when designing a biosafety level 2 facility?

a.   A sink for hand washing should be located near the exit door
b. 	Access to the facility is restricted to entry by a series of two self-closing, double-doors
c.   	Facility windows that open to the exterior must be fitted with screens
d. 	Vacuum lines should be protected with HEPA filters or their equivalent
e.   	An eyewash station must be readily available

74.  	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, all of the following statements describe housing requirements for nonhuman primates EXCEPT?

a. 	Perches that do not allow the space beneath them to be comfortably occupied must be counted as floor space
b.	When group housing nonhuman primates, the minimum floor space requirement for the enclosure is the sum of the minimum floor area space for each individual nonhuman primate
c. 	Group housing of nonhuman primates is preferred over single housing even when group members have slightly less floor space per animal than when singly housed
d.	Indoor primary enclosures must be sanitized at least once every two weeks
e.	Individually housed nonhuman primates without audio or visual contact with conspecifics must be provided special attention regarding enhancement of their environment

75.  	Which of the following features of a human cytomegalovirus infection is seen in a mouse model of cytomegalovirus infection?

a.	Transplacental infection
b.	Congenital hearing loss
c.	Chronic progressive nephropathy
d.	CNS infection in immune compromised individuals

76.  	Which of the following animal species has been shown to be naturally susceptible to hepatitis A virus and therefore poses a zoonotic risk?

a.	Canis familiaris
b.	Peromyscus leucopus
c.	Meriones unguiculatus
d.	Macaca fasicularis
e.	Marmota monax

77.  	Which of the following is a searchable biomedical database of federally supported proposed research conducted at universities, hospitals, and other research institutions?

a.	BIOSIS
b.	CCRIS
c.	CRISP
d.	NTIS
e.	GrantsNet

78.  	Which of the following is the correct designation for a congenic mouse strain in which the recipient or background strain is C57BL/10J?

a.	B10X129P/TyJ
b.	C57BL/10J-Chr1A/NaJ
c.	B10.129P-H12b
d.	129P.B10-H46b
e.	B6;129P – Apoa1 tm1Unc

79.  	In mice, the hypothalamic-pituitary axis and its hormonal control of ovarian and testicular function in reproduction is directly or indirectly influenced by which of the following factors?

a.	Population density
b.	Noise
c.	Diet
d.	Light
e.	All of the above

80.  	Which of the following IS NOT an ingredient of Bouin's solution, a fixative used for soft or delicate tissues?

f.	70% ethanol
g.	Picric acid
h.	Formaldehyde
i.	Acetic acid

81. 	Which of the following amino acids is ALWAYS absent in mouse urine?
	
a.	Arginine
b.	Cysteine
c.	Lysine
d.	Taurine
e.	Tryptophan

82. 	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, acceptable primary enclosures allow for all of the following, EXCEPT?

a.	Normal physiologic and behavioral needs of the animals 
b.	Conspecific social interaction and development of hierarchies within or between enclosures
c.	Freedom from sharp edges or projections that could cause injury.
d.	Observation of the animals regardless of the level of disturbance caused

83.  	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, all of the following statements apply to the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) EXCEPT?

a.	The IACUC must meet at least once every 6 months
b.	The IACUC should review the animal care program and inspect the animal facilities and activity areas annually
c.	The IACUC should include at least one practicing scientist experienced in research involving animals
d.	The IACUC is responsible for the oversight and evaluation of the animal care and use program and its components

84. 	Histiocytic sarcomas are most commonly seen in which of the following types of rats?

a.	Long-Evans
b.	Fischer 344
c.	Sprague-Dawley
d.	August
e.	Brown Norway
 
85. 	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, which of the following euthanasia techniques DOES NOT require that those responsible for use of euthanasia techniques must ensure that personnel have been properly trained and consistently apply these techniques humanely and effectively?

a.	Blow to the head
b.	Cervical dislocation
c.	Penetrating captive bolt
d.	Decapitation
e.	Thoracic compression

86.  	Providing refuge cover to South African clawed frogs causes which of the following behavioral alterations?

a.	Decreased food intake
b.	Increased food intake
c.	Decreased bite wounds
d.	Increased rate of bacterial infection
e.	Decreased egg production

87.  	Which of the following best describes feeling learners?

a.	People oriented
b.	Do a lot of thinking
c.	Work in the comfort of groups
d.	Active training participants
e.	Reserved

88. 	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, the recommended floor space for guinea pigs weighing less than 350 grams is __________?

a.	30 in2
b.	40 in2
c.	50 in2
d.	60 in2
e.	70 in2

89. 	Reflexive withdrawal from noxious stimulation is observed as early as what embryonic day in the rat?

a.	E14
b.	E15
c.	E16
d.	E17
e.	E18

90. 	Which of the following educational programs or organizations was developed to provide instruction in management concepts that are applicable to the laboratory animal science industry and to enhance communication, team building, and networking among colleagues with mutual interests?

a.	Certified Manager Animal Resources
b.	Institute of Laboratory Animal Resources 
c.	American Society of Laboratory Animal Management
d.	Institute for Laboratory Animal Management
e.	Laboratory Animal Management Association

91. 	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, the number and qualifications of personnel required to conduct and support an animal care and use program depend on all of the following factors EXCEPT?

a.	Type and size of institution
b.	Source and amount ($) of research funding
c.	Administrative structure for providing adequate animal care
d.	Physical plant characteristics
e.	Nature of the research, testing, and educational activities

92. 	Which of the following statements describes eustress in animals?

a.	Results when an animal’s response to stimuli causes neither harmful nor beneficial effects to the animal
b.	Results when an animal’s response to stimuli interferes with its well-being and comfort
c.	Results when harmless stimuli initiate adaptive responses that are beneficial to the animal
d.	Results when physical, physiological, or emotional factors induce an alteration in an animal’s adaptive state

93.  	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, how often should the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee meet?

a.	At least monthly
b.	At least once every 3 months
c.	At least once every 6 months
d.	At least once every year
e.	As needed

94.  	According to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals and the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which of the following is responsible for ensuring an individual caring for or using animals is qualified to do so?

a.	Attending Veterinarian
b.	Institution or research facility
c.	Individual
d.	Office of Environmental Health and Safety
e.	Department Supervisor

95.  	If the null hypothesis is accepted when in fact the alternative hypothesis is true, which of the following types of error has occurred?

a.	Type I
b.	Type II
c.	Type III
d.	Type IV
e.	Type V

96.  	All of the following clinical or physical signs indicate severe or chronic pain/distress in a mouse EXCEPT?

a.	Wasting of dorsal musculature
b.	Soiled hair coat
c.	Sunken eyes
d.	Decreased vibrissal movements
e.	Bruxism

97.  	Which of the following types of strains are inbred strains of mice that differ at only a single locus through mutation occurring in that strain?

a.	Consomic
b.	Congenic
c.	Conplastic
d.	Coisogenic
e.	Segregating inbred

98.  	Which of the following classes of DNA markers is used to rapidly and accurately determine the genetic purity of a mouse strain, is the most common type of genetic variation in the genome and has the added advantage of providing more detailed coverage of the genome than other marker panels?

a.	Simple sequence length polymorphisms (SSLP)
b.	Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
c.	Isoenzymes
d.	Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLPs)

99.  	The Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals and the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations require that the attending veterinarian have oversight over which of the following aspects of animal care and use?

a.	Animal husbandry and nutrition
b.	Sanitation practices
c.	Zoonosis control
d.	Hazard containment
e.	All of the above

100.  	Which of the following agents has been shown to induce a rapid, elevated IL6 response in the nasal cavity and respiratory tract of C57BL/6 mice? 

a.	Acetylcholine 
b.	Urecholine 
c.	Carbamoylcholine chloride
d.	Pilocarpine 
e.	Physostigmine

101.  	According to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, how often must the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee review the institution’s program for humane care and use of animals?

a.	Monthly
b.	At least once every 3 months
c.	At least cone every 6 months
d.	Every year
e.	Every 3 years

102.  	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, which of the following is a “conditionally acceptable” method of euthanasia for dogs?

a.	CO2 
b.	CO
c.	Electrocution
d.	Potassium chloride
e.	Potassium chloride in conjunction with general anesthesia

103.	Which of the following in vivo imaging modalities showed high correlation for ovarian volume and antral follicle counts in macaques when compared to direct post mortem measurements?

a.	Phase-contrast micro-tomography 
a.	Multidetector computed tomography 
b.	3D fluorescence tomography 
c.	Electron-beam computed tomography 
d.	Single photon emission computed tomography 

104.	Fenbendazole is a benzimidazole agent that exerts nematocidal activity through which of the following actions?

a.	Binding to nematode glutamate-gated sodium channels
b.	Inhibiting nematode chitin formation
c.	Binding to nematode tubulin
d.	Inhibiting nematode cholinesterase

105.	Which of the following hormones is the primary hormone released from the mouse thyroid?

a.	T3
b.	Thyroxine
c.	Triiodothyronine
d.	TSH

106.	Which of the following hormones is implicated in rapid eye movement sleep (REMS) regulation?

a.	Aldosterone
b.	Melatonin
c.	Leptin
d.	Prolactin

107.	Which of the following coagulation tests is found to be prolonged or abnormal in PL/J mice as compared with C57BL/6J mice?

a.	Activated prothrombin time
b.	D-dimer
c.	Activated partial thromboplastin time
d.	Fibrinogen

108.	Which of the following species is naturally resistant to Cryptococcus neoformans infection?

a.	Mouse
b.	Rat
c.	Guinea pig
d.	Rabbit

109.	What application type is a grant with ID number 2 R01 AI183723 01 A1?

a.	New application
b.	Renewal
c.	Noncompeting continuation
d.	Supplement
e.	ID number does not provide that information

110.	A diet low in L-tryptophan (under 0.1%) may cause which of the following problems in guinea pigs?

a.	Drowsiness
b.	Abnormal bone repair
c.	Trembling
d.	Fatty liver
e.	Cataracts

111.	Which of the following reasons accounts for the lack of freemartinism in callitrichids?

a.	Presence of steroid hormones
b.	Presence of thyroid hormones
c.	Frequent twinning
d.	Presence of estrogen
e.	Presence of aromatizing enzymes

112.	Which of the following factors may contribute to the high female-to-female transmission rate of simian T-lymphotrophic virus type 1 (STLV1) in baboons?

a.	Sexual transmission
b.	Mother-to-infant
c.	Fomite transmission
d.	Parenterally via fighting

113.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which facilities housing USDA covered species must have a written program of veterinary care?

a.	All research facilities
b.	Dealers, exhibitors and research facilities that house only USDA covered species
c.	Only research facilities that employ a part-time or consulting veterinarian 
d.	All dealers, exhibitors and research facilities
e.	Dealers, exhibitors and research facilities that employ a part-time or consulting veterinarian

114.	Which of the following carbon dioxide exposure times is recommended for euthanasia of nonhaired mouse pups 0 to 6 days age?

a.	5 minutes
b.	10 minutes
c.	20 minutes
d.	60 minutes
e.	None of the above

115.	Which of the following IS NOT an effect or property of buprenorphine?

a.	Enhances the respiratory depressant properties of other opioid m receptor agonists
b.	Acts as a partial m receptor agonist
c.	Is mostly excreted unchanged in the feces
d.	Produces analgesia and other CNS side effects similar to those produced by morphine

116.	At physiological pH, which form of morphine predominates in solution?

a.	The uncharged or freebase form of morphine 
b.	The form of morphine with a charge on the nitrogen 
c.	The form of morphine lacking the proton on the phenolic hydroxyl group at carbon 3 
d.	The free alkaline form of morphine

117.	The total solubility of morphine increases with which of the following factors?

a.	Dissolving in 0.9% saline instead of water
b.	Increasing pH
c.	Increasing the temperature
d.	Dissolving in 5% dextrose instead of water

118.	Which of the following inhaled anesthetics is degraded by carbon dioxide absorbents into compound A, a nephrotoxin in nonhuman primates?

a.	Isoflurane
b.	Sevoflurane
c.	Halothane
d.	Ether
e.	Methoxyflurane

119.	Which of the following refers to the reduction or prevention of pain by the administration of analgesics prior to a noxious insult?

a.	Preemptive analgesia
b.	Wind-up pain
c.	Neuropathic pain
d.	Somatic pain

120.	Which of the following anesthetic combinations provides neuroleptanalgesia?

a.	Fentanyl-butorphanol
b.	Fentanyl-ketamine
c.	Naloxone-medetomidine
d.	Fentanyl-droperidol

121.	The myocardial performance index (MPI), a non-invasive measure of cardiac function, is independent of which of the following cardiac parameters?

a.	Cardiac geometry
b.	Cardiac contractility
c.	Cardiac preload
d.	Cardiac afterload

122.	Which of the following methods is the most widely used method for assessing hearing sensitivity in rats, mice, and most other laboratory animals?

a.	Prepulse inhibition 
b.	Auditory brainstem-evoked response 
c.	Acoustic tympanogram 
d.	Acoustic startle response

123.	The glucose analog [18F]-fluoro-2-deoxy-D-glucose is a radiotracer commonly used to estimate brain activity in which of the following imaging modalities?

a.	Three dimensional contrast echocardiography
b.	Magnetic resonance imaging 
c.	Computed tomography scan
d.	Positron emission tomography

124.	Which of the following IS NOT a subspecies of Mus musculus?

a.	Castaneus
b.	Domesticus
c.	Molossinus
d.	Spretus

125.	All of the following methods of euthanasia in mice were found to result in a loss of cortical activity within 30 seconds EXCEPT?

a.	70% CO2 administered by positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
b.	100% CO2 administered by PPV
c.	Decapitation
d.	Cervical dislocation

126.	According to the 2007 AVMA Guidelines on Euthanasia, which of the following methods of euthanasia is conditionally acceptable for use in rodents?

a.	Barbiturate overdose
b.	CO2 
c.	Potassium chloride in conjunction with general anesthesia
d.	Cervical dislocation

127.	Gamma irradiation mainly renders microorganisms nonviable by which of the following mechanisms?

a.	Formation of pyrimidine dimers
b.	Oxidation
c.	DNA cleavage or breaks
d.	DNA methylation
e.	Disruption of histone complex

128.	Which of the following viral hemorrhagic diseases IS NOT considered zoonotic?

a.	Yellow fever
b.	Simian hemorrhagic fever
c.	Dengue
d.	Ebola
e.	Marburg virus disease

129.	Which of the following statements applies to a pyramid breeding system in mice?

a.	The foundation stock colony is at the base of the pyramid
b.	The pedigree expansion stock colony should be physically separated from the other colonies to prevent major loss
c.	The production stock colony is pedigreed and strict brother-sister matings are maintained
d.	Offspring from the foundation stock breeders are used to supply the next layer in the pyramid, the pedigree expansion stock colony

130.	Which of the following statements pertains to the use of vascular access ports in large animal species?

a.	Once the incisions have healed, sterile technique is no longer needed, and a “clean” technique can be used to access the port
b.	Vascular access ports can be used for arterial blood pressure monitoring
c.	Standard treatment of an infected implant should consist of antibiotic therapy and frequent flushing of the catheter and port
d.	Hypodermic needles are recommended when injecting into the port
e.	Titanium ports are generally not recommended for studies that require magnetic resonance imaging

131.	In the wild, which of the following social structures best describes that of Macaca mulatta?

a.	Monogamous pairs
b.	Single male, multi-female group
c.	Multi-male, multi-female group with a strict female hierarchy
d.	Single female, multi-male group

132.	Obesity in dogs is defined as a body weight that is what percentage over the ideal?

a.	10-15
b.	20-25
c.	15-20
d.	30-35

133.	According to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, a satellite facility is any containment outside of a core facility or centrally designated or managed area in which animals are housed for more than how many hours?

a.	8 hours
b.	12 hours
c.	24 hours
d.	36 hours
e.	48 hours

134.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, for at least how long must a research facility maintain Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee records and reports?

a.	At least 6 months
b.	At least 1 year
c.	At least 2 years
d.	At least 3 years
e.	At least 5 years

135.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, a research facility shall maintain all of the following Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) records EXCEPT?

a.	Records of semiannual reports and recommendations
b.	Minutes of IACUC meetings
c.	Records of AAALAC accreditation status
d.	Records of proposed activities
e.	No recordkeeping requirements are stated

136.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which of the following statements applies to a consultant invited by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) to assist with review of complex issues?

a.	May approve or withhold approval
b.	May vote with the IACUC
c.	May serve as an ad hoc member
d.	May not approve or withhold approval of an activity

137.	What period does the annual report for research facilities to the USDA Animal Care Regional Office cover?

a.  	October 1 through September 30
b.  	November 1 though October 31
c.  	January 1 through December 31
d.  	June 1 through May 31
e.  	July 1 through June 30

138.	Which of the following types of protection is provided by a class I biological safety cabinet?

a.	Environmental only
b.	Personnel and product only
c.	Product only
d.	Personnel and environmental only
e.	Product and environmental only

139.	In the nitrogen cycle, which of the following bacteria converts nitrite to the relatively nontoxic nitrate?

a.	Rhizobium spp.
b.	Nitrosomonas spp.
c.	Nitrobacter spp.
d.	Azotobacter spp.

140.	Which of the following types of contact bedding has no effect on liver enzymes in rats?

a.	Heat-treated pine bedding
b.	Corncob bedding
c.	Cedar chip bedding
d.	All types of contact bedding have an effect on liver enzymes in rats

141.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, which of the following statements describes exercise requirements for dogs?

a.	Dogs over the age of 16 weeks must be given the opportunity for exercise
b.	Exemptions must be documented and reviewed by the IACUC every 30 days
c.	Dogs housed in runs that provide more than 2 times the required floor space for that animal are exempt from exercise requirements
d.	Group housed dogs are exempt as long as they are compatible groups
e.	There is no exercise requirement for dogs

142.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, the traditional temperature requirement for rinse water (water in the tank or in the sprayer manifold) used in washing and disinfecting primary enclosures is what temperature?

a.	180°F
b.	150°F
c.	143°F
d.	130°F
b.	100°F

143.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, enclosures and accessories should be sanitized at least how often?

a.	Twice per week
b.	Once a week
c.	Once every two weeks
d.	Once every three weeks

144.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, which of the following statements best describes airflow in an animal surgery room?

a.	High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filtered into the room, positive to the hallway
b.	HEPA filtered out of the room, room negative to the hallway
c.	HEPA filtered into the room, room negative to the hallway
d.	HEPA filtered out of the room, room positive to the hallway

145.	According to the Health Research Extension Act of 1985 (Public Law 99-158), who is ultimately responsible for the establishment of guidelines for the proper care and use of animals in biomedical and behavioral research?

a.	Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services
b.	Institutional Official
c.	Attending Veterinarian
d.	Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee 

146.	Who has the responsibility for the general administration and coordination of the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals? 

a.	Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare
b.	Director of the National Institutes of Health
c.	Secretary of the Department of Health and Human Services
d.	Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service 
e.	Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee

147.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, the ambient temperature in the facility must not fall below which of the following temperatures for cats and dogs not acclimated to lower temperatures, for short-haired breeds, and for sick, aged, young, or infirm dogs and cats?

a.	40oF
b.	45oF
c.	50oF
d.	640F
e.	55oF

148.	What act authorizes the Fisheries and Wildlife Service to regulate the importation, transportation, sale, receipt, acquisition, or purchase of potentially injurious foreign fish, wildlife or plants? 

a.	Lacey Act
b.	Animal Welfare Act
c.	Endangered Species Act
d.	Food Security Act
e.	Pet Theft Act

149.	According to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, who appoints members of the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC)?

a.	Institutional Official
b.	IACUC Chair
c.	Chief Executive Officer 
d.	Vice Chancellor for Research

150.	Which of the following individuals or groups of individuals is responsible for achieving and monitoring adherence to the Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals through voluntary compliance with his/her/their institution’s approved Assurance? 

a.	Principal investigator
b.	Attending veterinarian 
c.	Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee
d.	Institutional official
e.	Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare

151.	The Public Health Service Policy on Humane Care and Use of Laboratory Animals and the Animal Welfare Act and it regulations require that proposals submitted to the IACUC be kept for how long, even if approval was not granted or animals were not used?

a.	0 month
a.	6 months
b.	1 year
c.	3 years
d.	5 years

152.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, whose responsibility is it for ensuring the qualifications of Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) members and that this responsibility is filled in part through the provision of training and instruction? 

a.	Institutional official
b.	Research facility
c.	Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee 
d.	IACUC Chair
e.	Office of Animal Care

153.	Doxirubicin cardiotoxicity in the rat has been used to produce which of the following disease models?

a.	Dilated cardiomyopathy
b.	Sinoatrial (SA) node derived arrhythmia 
c.	Mitral valve Insufficiency
d.	Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

154.	Which of the following microsomal enzymes is the most abundant cytochrome (CYP) P450 enzyme in the body?

a.	CYP1A
b.	CYP2B
c.	CYP2E
d.	CYP3A

155.	Which of the following federal agencies regulates the importation of nonhuman primates into the Unites States?

a.	United States Department of Agriculture
b.	United States Department of the Interior
c.	Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare
d.	Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
e.	Food and Drug Administration

156.	Which of the following physiological measures is unreliable for monitoring anesthetic depth and the general physiological state of animals given neuromuscular blocking drugs?

a.	Heart rate
b.	Electroencephalogram
c.	Palpebral reflex
d.	Pupil size
e.	End-tidal CO2

157.	Which of the following dietary manipulations prevented hormone-refractory prostate cancer in Lobund-Wistar rats?

a.	Moderate caloric restriction
b.	Dietary supplementation with soy protein isolate with high isoflavones 
c.	Dietary supplementation with casein protein isolate
d.	Dietary manipulations do not alter prostate cancer development or progression
e.	Dietary 4-hydroxyphenylretinamide

158.	NIH is currently transitioning from paper submission of grant applications to electronic submission via the web portal of Grants.gov while simultaneously phasing out the PHS398 grant application form and replacing it with which of the following submission forms?

a.	PHS 399
b.	SF 424 (R&R)
c.	PHS 2590
d.	HHS 568
e.	PHS 416-1

159.	What is the causative agent of Glasser’s disease?

a.	Salmonella choleraesuis
b.	Mycoplasma hyorhinis
c.	Haemophilus parasuis
d.	Streptococcus suis
e.	Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

160.	To which of the following viral families does the transmissible gastroenteritis virus of swine belong?

a.	Coronaviridae
b.	Arteriviridae
c.	Rotaviridae
d.	Circoviridae
e.	Parvoviridae

161.	Under Good Laboratory Practice for Nonclinical Laboratory Studies (CFR 21, Part 58), any deviations from Standard Operating Procedures are to be authorized by whom?

a.	Study Director
b.	Study Sponsor
c.	Testing Facility
d.	Quality Assurance Unit

162.	Which of the following species IS NOT covered by the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations?

a.	Cavia porcellus
b.	Peromyscus leucopus
c.	Sigmodon hispidus
d.	Trachemys scripta elegans

163.	All of the following statements apply to NOD/SCID mice EXCEPT? 

a.	Most commonly used strain of immunodeficient mice for studying hemopoietic stem cell biology 
b.	Additional defects in natural killer cell and macrophage function 
c.	High incidence of thymic lymphomas and shortened lifespan 
d.	Resistant to irradiation

164.	Which of the following describes the effects of outdoor housing on self-injurious behavior (SIB) in adult rhesus macaques?

a.	SIB is reduced if animals are given access to outdoor housing in social groups 
b.	SIB is not reduced by outdoor housing if animals are individually housed
c.	SIB is reduced by outdoor housing regardless of whether animals are socially or individually housed
d.	SIB is not reduced by outdoor housing regardless of whether animals are socially or individually housed

165.	What law promulgated authority for creation of good laboratory practice for nonclinical laboratory studies?

a.  	Animal Welfare Act
b.  	Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
c.  	Health Research Extension Act
d.  	Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Act
e.  	Toxic Substances Control Act

166.	Which of the following Pasteurella multocida serotypes is most frequently associated with snuffles in rabbits?

a.	3:A
b.	3:D
c.	12:D
d.	12:A
e.	3:C

167.	Which of the following describes the etiological agent of epizootic diarrhea of infant mice?

a.	Calicivirus
b.	Rotavirus 
c.	Reovirus
d.	Coronavirus
e.	Parvovirus

168.	 In cattle, there is no venereal transmission of which of the following diseases?

a.	Anaplasmosis
b.	Trichomoniasis
c.	Mycoplasmal diseases
d.	Leptospirosis

169.	Mice with chronic skin disease due to an ectromelia virus infection can transmit infection by which of the following routes?

a.	Contact
b.	Aerosol
c.	Arthropod-borne
d.	Urine
e.	Milk

170.	According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following categories of bioterrorism agents or diseases includes emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of availability, ease of production and dissemination, and potential for high morbidity and mortality rates and major health impact?

a.	Category A
b.	Category B
c.	Category C
d.	Category D

171.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, a protocol can only be approved by the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) under which of the following conditions?

a.	At least 50% of the IACUC members are present at a convened meeting
b.	A majority (>50%) of the IACUC members are present at a convened meeting
c.	If the majority (>50%) of the quorum of the IACUC present at a convened meeting votes in favor of approval
d.	If all IACUC members with no conflicts of interest are present at a convened meeting

172.	Which of the following laryngoscope blades is recommended for use in intubating a rabbit?

a.	Miller
b.	Soper
c.	Macintosh
d.	Wisconsin
e.	Magill

173.	Which of the following agents and receptors are thought to be most important in the development of central sensitization?

a.	Glutamate and NMDA receptors
b.	Substance P and NMDA receptors 
c.	Neurokinin A and opioid receptors
d.	Prostaglandins and prostaglandin receptors
e.	Histamine and histamine receptors

174.	All of the following are reasons for using pre-anesthetic medication in laboratory animals EXCEPT?

a.	Stimulate the vaso-vagal reflex
b.	Reduce salivary and bronchial secretions
c.	Reduce the amount of other anesthetic agents used for induction
d.	Reduce fear and apprehension
e.	Provide smoother recovery from anesthesia

175.	Which of the following is the most notable side effect when using halothane in guinea pigs?

a.	Hypothermia
b.	Respiratory depression
c.	Arrhythmia
d.	Hypotension
e.	All of the above

176.	Which of the following euthanasia agents or methods IS NOT considered sufficient for amphibians?

a.	Sodium pentobarbital
b.	Tricaine methane sulfonate overdose
c.	Isoflurane
d.	Hypothermia
e.	Decapitation followed by double-pithing

177.	All of the following statements apply to nitrous oxide anesthesia EXCEPT?

a. 	Used to reduce the amount of potent inhalation anesthetic agent needed
b.	Used to minimize respiratory and cardiovascular depression
c. 	Inadequate as a sole anesthetic
d. 	Activated charcoal scavenging systems are effective for removing nitrous oxide

178.	Prolonged feeding of diets high in which of the following can result in renal disease in rabbits? 

a.	Calcium
b.	Phosphorus
c.	Magnesium
d.	Vitamin A
e.	Vitamin D

179.	The relative amounts of the different forms of morphine depend on which of the following factors?

a.	pH
b.	Temperature
c.	Vendor
d.	pH and temperature 
e.	There is only one form or species of morphine

180.	Water is recovered in the distal tubules of the kidney by which of the following actions?

a.	Sodium reabsorption stimulated by aldosterone
b.	Sodium reabsorption stimulated by vasopressin
c.	Chloride reabsorption stimulated by vasopressin
d.	Aldosterone at V2 receptors 
e.	Vasopressin at V2 receptors

181.	What of the following measures has proven to be the most effective in maintaining the health of dogs with exteriorized chronic intravascular catheters?

a.	Start antibiotic treatment as soon as the animal develops fever
b.	Start prolonged antibiotic treatment as soon as the WBC count exceeds 18,000 cells/ml
c.	Start prolonged antibiotic treatment as soon as the WBC count exceeds 22,000 cells/ml
d.	Establish antibiotic treatment as soon as blood culture results are known
e.	Treat with broad-spectrum antibiotics if the animal develops any clinical signs

182.	Which of the following would be a reasonable maximum volume to inject intramuscularly into a 25 g mouse?

a.	Up to 0.1ml per site
b.	Up to 0.05ml per site
c.	Up to 0.01ml per site
d.	Never more than 0.2ml per site
e.	None of the above

183.	Which of the following laryngoscope blades is a curved laryngoscope blade?

a.	Phillips blade
b.	Wisconsin blade
c.	Choi blade
d.	Modified Miller blade
e.	Robershaw blade

184.	Which of the following statement DOES NOT apply to biosafety level 3 practices?

a. 	Controlled access of personnel
b. 	Decontamination of clothing before laundering
c. 	Exotic agents that pose high risk of life-threatening disease by aerosol transmission
d. 	Class I or II biosafety cabinets

185.	Which of the following terms describes a graft between genetically dissimilar animals of the same species?

a.	Autograft
b.	Heterograft
c.	Allograft
d.	Xenograft
e.	Isologous graft

186.	Which of the following breeding systems would be utilized to create a recombinant inbred mouse strain?

a.  	Repeated backcross of mutation-bearing mice for 10 or more generations
b. 	Brother-sister matings for >20 generations after crossing two inbred strains and their F1 to obtain an F2
c.  	Nonsibling matings from an F2 of a cross between two inbred strains
d.  	Brother-sister matings system for >20 generations with heterozygosity for the mutations forced by backcrossing
e.	Brother-sister matings for more than 20 generations

187.	Which of the following biological safety cabinets is often used as rodent cage change cabinets?

a.	Biological safety cabinet class I
b.	Biological safety cabinet class II type A
c.	Biological safety cabinet class II type B
d.	Biological safety cabinet class III

188.	In facilities housing rodents, fire alarms should operate at which of the following frequencies?

a.	Between 400 and 500 kHz
b.	Below 200 kHz
c.	Between 500 and 800 kHz
d.	Above 2000 kHz

189.	Which of the following statements best describes optimal husbandry of zebrafish?

a.	Optimal temperature for zebrafish is 67°-79°F (19°-26°C), with lower temperatures being recommended to stimulate egg laying/reproductive behavior
b.	Like most freshwater species, zebrafish prefer a pH range of 6.8-7.2 with a pH of 7.0 being optimal
c.	Water conductivity is a convenient means to measure the amount of nitrites dissolved in water
d.	Zebrafish are generally considered to be a “soft” water species with optimum calcium and magnesium levels between 0-10 ppm

190.	Which type of study DOES NOT involve the imposition of an experimental treatment?

a.	Confirmatory study
b.	Exploratory study
c.	Observational study
d.	Pilot study

191.	Which of the following allergens is the major allergen produced by mice?

a.	Mus m 2, a salivary protein
b.	Mus m 1, a salivary protein
c.	Mus m 2, a urinary protein
d.	M mus 1, a salivary protein
e.	Mus m 1, a urinary protein

192.	Which of the following statements describes the function of the heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system for research animal facilities?

a.	To maintain temperature and humidity
b.	To remove heat and particulate contaminants generated in animal rooms
c.	To maintain temperature and humidity and to remove heat and particulate contaminants in animal rooms
d.	To maintain temperature and humidity and to remove heat and gaseous contaminants in animal rooms
e.	To maintain temperature and humidity and to remove heat, particulate, and gaseous contaminants generate in animal rooms

193.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, what is the recommended light level to prevent phototoxic retinopathy in albino rats?

a.	800 lux, measured 2 meters above the floor
b.	325 lux, measured at the cage level
c.	325 lux measured 1 meter above the floor
d.	800 lux, measured 1 meter above the floor
e.	325 lux, measured at the ceiling level

194.	Which of the following statements applies to biological safety cabinets (BSCs)?

a.	Only in class III BSCs does the exhaust air from the cabinet passes through high efficiency particulate filters
b.	Class I and II BSCs are not suitable for working with infectious agents up to BSL-3
c.	Class III BSCs are suitable for working with infectious agents classified as BSL-4
d.	Class III BSCs are subdivided into types A and B

195.	Which of the following treatments could be used to treat drinking water for laboratory animals?

a. 	Hyperchlorination 
b. 	Acidification to a pH of 2.5-3.0
c. 	Reverse osmosis
d. 	All of above

196.	All of the following statements apply to cage sanitation and servicing areas in an animal facility EXCEPT?

a.	It’s one of the most important spaces in an animal facility
b.	Its location, design and equipment are very relevant to how effectively the unit will operate
c.	Animal cages are typically transported between animal rooms and the sanitation area one to three times per week
d.	Single room cage sanitation areas are highly recommended
e.	Space for bulk storage of cage sanitation chemicals should be considered 

197.	High efficiency particulate air filters rely on which of the following principles?

a.	Inertial forces bring very small particles into contact with charged filter fibers
b.	Inertial forces bring larger particles and very small particles into contact with charged filter fibers
c.	Inertial forces bring larger particles and Brownian motion brings very small particles into contact with charged filter fibers
d.	Brownian motion brings larger particles and very small particles into contact with charged filter fibers
e.	Inertial forces bring very small particles and Brownian motion brings larger particles into contact with charged filter fibers

198.	Which of the following methods IS NOT an acceptable method of euthanasia in mouse and rat fetuses over 15 days gestation through birth?

a.	Cervical dislocation
b.	Decapitation with sharp scissors
c.	Rapid freezing in liquid nitrogen without prior anesthesia
d.	Injection of chemical anesthetics
e.	Anesthesia followed by chemical fixation

199.	All of the following statements apply to training of laboratory animals EXCEPT?

a.	It provides the tools to improve husbandry and veterinary care
b.	Reduces abnormal and stereotypic behaviour
c.	Reduces aggression
d.	Interferes with enrichment programs
e.	Improves socialization

200.	Which of the following types of rats is a well-known animal model of autoimmune type I diabetes?

a.	Zucker diabetic fatty
b.	BBDP
c.	Cohen diabetic rat
d.	Wistar fatty
e.	GK

201.	Which of the following animal species is used to model epidemic keratoconjunctivitis?

a.	Rabbit
b.	Cotton rat
c.	Guinea pig
d.	Degus
e.	Zebrafish

202.	Which of the following animal species has been used extensively as a model for influenza research?

a. 	Dog
b. 	Ferret
c. 	Rabbit
d. 	Rat

203.	Which of the following types of macaques is an animal model for male pattern baldness? 

a.	Macaca mulatta
b.	Macaca fasicularis
c.	Macaca munzala 
d.	Macaca arctoides
e.	Macaca nemestrina

204.	The murine gammaherpesvirus 68 was identified as a natural pathogen in which of the following species?

a.	Wood mice
b.	House mice
c.	Harvest mice
d.	Deer mice
e.	White-footed mice

205.	Which of the following statements applies to crossover designs?

a.	Each animal receives some or all of the treatments being studied
b.	Treatment comparisons are largely or entirely between different animals
c.	Each animal receives a single treatment
d.	They are closely related to completely randomized designs
e.	Often have lesser statistical power than parallel group designs

206.	Which of the following statements best describes what the significance level is?

a.	The probability of obtaining a false-negative result
b.	The probability of obtaining significant results
c.	The probability of obtaining a Type II error
d.	The probability of obtaining a false-positive result
e.	The probability of not having any errors

207.	In which of the following animal species does unilateral ligation of the carotid artery result in ipsilateral cerebral ischemia?

a.	Mus musculus
b.	Rattus norvegicus
c.	Meriones unguiculatus
d.	Cavia porcellus
e.	Felis cattus

208.	What is the average body temperature in the rabbit?

a.	36.5 - 37.5°C (97.7 – 99.5°F)
b.	37.5 - 38.5°C (99.5 – 101.3°F)
c.	38.5 - 39.5°C (101.3 – 103.1°F)
d.	39.5 - 40.5°C (103.1 – 104.9°F)

209.	Which of the following vertebrae is the anticlinal vertebra in the dog?

a.	C7
a.	T7
b.	T11
c.	L6
d.	L7

210.	Which of the following rodents has an X zone composed of basophilic cells in the adrenal cortex?

a.	Mice
b.	Rats
c.	Hamsters
d.	Guinea pigs
e.	Gerbil

211.	Which of the following types of placentation applies to guinea pigs?

a.   Epitheliochorial
b.   Endotheliochorial
c.   Hemoendothelial
d.   Hemomonochorionic

212.	Which of the following effects describes when pheromones from a strange male mouse prevent implantation in recently bred females?
	
a.	Blandau
b.	Bruce
c.	Lee- Boot
d.   Schwartzmann 
e.   Whitten

213.	Which of the following types of guinea pigs are considered to be inbred strains?
 
a.	Hairless
b.	Hartley
c.	2 and 13
d.	Abyssinian
e.	4 and 19

214.	In which of the following nonhuman primate species is dizygotic twinning a common occurrence?

a.	Baboons
b.	Callitrichids
c.	Chimpanzees
d.	Owl monkeys

215.	Which of the following conditions is the most common genetic disorder observed in the gerbil?

a.	Epileptiform seizures
b.	Predilection to dental caries
c.	Malocclusion
d.	Cystic ovaries
e.	Amyloidosis

216.	Which of the following statements describes the morphophysiology of female rats?

a.	Convoluted cerebrum, foramen of Magendie, limiting ridge, and tonsils
b.	Smooth cerebrum, bicornate uterus, unipapillate kidney
c.	Smooth cerebrum, tonsils, pyriform uterus, multipapillate kidney
d.	Convoluted cerebrum, gall bladder, limiting ridge, and duplex uterus
e.	Smooth cerebrum, limiting ridge, multipapillate kidneys

217.	Which of the following statements is applicable to hypovitaminosis C in guinea pigs?  

a.	Guinea pigs are able to synthesize ascorbic acid from glucose via the glucuronic pathway in times of need
b.	Defects in bile acid synthesis
c.	Ascorbic acid turnover is relatively constant with stable tissue concentrations and storage
d.	Guinea pigs are genetically deficient in L-gulonolactone oxidase

218.	Cheek pouches are specialized anatomical features found in the genera of which of the following families?

a.	Cebidae
b.	Tarsiidae 
c.	Callitrichidae
d.	Cercopithecidae
e.	Hylobatidae

219.	Where does the largest amount of hematopoeisis occur in infant mice?

a.	Bone marrow
b.	Spleen
c.	Liver
d.	Thymus

220.	To which of the following factors is the rodent estrous cycle most sensitive?

a.	Light 
b.	Temperature
c.	Humidity 
d.	Dusty bedding material

221.	Which of the following forms is a log of work related illness and injury?

a.	OSHA Form 101
b.	OSHA Form 200
c.	OPPR Form 207
d.	NIOSH Form 101

222.	Based on investigations of laboratory-acquired infections, which of the following routes of laboratory transmission of infectious agents accounts for approximately 80% of all exposures?

a.	Parenteral inoculations with syringe needles or other contaminated sharps
b.	Spills and splashes onto skin and mucous membranes
c.	Ingestion through mouth pipetting
d.	Animal bites and scratches
e.	Inhalation exposures to infectious aerosols

223.	High efficiency particulate air filters have an efficiency of up to ____________ for particles of atmospheric air with a predominating size of __________ microns?

a.	99.95%; 0.5 microns
b.	99.97%; 0.3 microns
c.	99.90%; 0.05 microns
d.	99.97%; 0.03 microns

224.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, a study area is defined as any building room, area, enclosure, or other containment outside of a core facility or centrally designated or managed area in which animals are housed for more than how many hours?

a.	6
b.	8
c.	10
d.	12
e.	24

225.	In standard nomenclature for transgenic animals, the laboratory-assigned number is represented by which part of the TgX(YYY)###Zzz formula?

a.	Tg
a.	X
b.	(YYY)
c.	###
d.	Zzz

226.	According to the Animal Welfare Act and its regulations, the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee can have no more than how many members from the same administrative unit (departmental level) of the facility?

a.	1
b.	2
c.	3
d.	4
e.	There is no limit

227.	All of the following species have a postpartum estrus EXCEPT? 

a.	Mice
b.	Guinea pigs  
c.	Marmosets 
d.	Tamarins

228.	According to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals, what is considered to be the acceptable range of relative humidity in an animal facility? 

a.	40-60%
b.   30-70%
c.   20-80%
d.   50-70%
e.   30-60%

229.	In terms of radiation absorbed dose, what is one Gray equivalent to?

a.	10 Rads
b.	100 Rads
c.	1,000 Rads
d.	10,000 Rads

230.	The murine local lymph node assay has been validated as an alternative for assessing a chemical’s/compound’s potential for which of the following effects?

a.	Allergic contact dermatitis
b.	Oncogenicity
c.	Immunosuppression
d.	Pyrogenicity
e.	Mutagenicity

231.	What is the mode of inheritance of Waardenburg's Syndrome in cats?

a.	Autosomal recessive
b.	Autosomal dominant
c.	Sex-linked recessive
d.	Sex-linked dominant  

232.	What is the term used to describe the induction of anestrus in group-housed female mice?

a.	Whitten effect
b.	Lee-Boot effect
c.	Lee effect
d.	Bruce effect
e.	Preyer effect

233.	What is the term used to describe a strain of mice in which a whole chromosome from one strain is backcrossed onto a recipient background?

a.	Consomic
b.	Conplastic
c.	Congenic
d.	Coisogenic
e.	Recombinant Congenic

234.	What is the statistical term for concluding that two populations are the same when they actually differ?

a.	Type I error (alpha)
b.	Type II error (beta)
c.	Variance
d.	Confounding

235.	Which of the following is a quotidian malarial parasite?

a.	P. knowlesi
b.	P. cynomolgi
c.	P. gonderi
d.	P. fieldi
e.	P. semiovale

236.	Which of the following anesthetics is associated with adynamic ileus, peritonitis, morbidity, and death after intraperitoneal administration in the rat?

a.	Urethane
b.	Tribromoethanol
c.	Ketamine
d.	Chloral hydrate
e.	Pentobarbital

237.	Which of the following etiological agents naturally causes syphilis in rabbits? 

a.	Treponema paraluis cuniculi
b.	Treponema pallidum
c.	Treponema paraluis oryctalagus
d.	Spirillus cuniculi

238.	Which of the following etiologic agents has been linked to an epizootic of high mortality with malformed and missing incisor in neonatal Syrian hamsters?

a.	Papovavirus
b.	Parvovirus
c.	CAR bacillus
d.	Sendai virus
e.	Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

239.	Which of the following etiologic agents is a common cause of pneumonia in guinea pigs resulting in high mortality, inappetence, dyspnea, and oculonasal discharge?  

a.	Streptococcus zooepidemicus
b.	Bordetella bronchiseptica
c.	Chlamydophila (formerly Chlamydia) psittaci
d.	Clostridium piliforme

240.	Which of the following types of placentation is seen in ferrets?

a.	Hemochorial 
b.	Endotheliochorial 
c.	Syndesmochorial 
d.	Epitheliochorial 

241.	In mice, which of the following organisms occurs in blood, is either attached to erythrocytes or free in plasma and can be transmitted by Polyplax serrata?

a.	Eperythrozoon coccoides
b.	Rickettsia rickettsii
c.	Rickettsia tustsugamushi
d.	Hemobartonella muris
e.	Coxiella burnetii

242.	Which of the following is the most consistent and striking clinical chemistry change noted in rats with chronic progressive nephropathy?

a.	Azotemia
b.	Hypocholesterolemia
c.	Hypoalbuminemia
d.	Hypocalcemia

243. 	What is the gestation length for guinea pigs?
 
a.   24-26 days
a.	29-35 days
b.	40-42 days
c.	59-72 days

244.	Pott's disease refers to an infection of the spinal or vertebral column with which of the following organisms?  

a.	Streptococcus alphahemolytica
b.	Mycobacterium leprae
c.	Yersinia pseudotuberculosis 
d.	Mycobacterium tuberculosis
e.	Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

245.	According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which of the following organisms would be considered a Category C bioterrorism agent?

a.	Burkholderia mallei
b.	Burkholderia pseudomallei
c.	Chlamydophila (formerly Chlamydia) psittaci
d.	Coxiella burnetii
e.	Hantavirus

246.	Suspicion of which of the following diseases in nonhuman primates DOES NOT require importers to notify the Director of the CDC by telephone within 24 hours? 

a.	Mycobacterium tuberculosis  
b.	Yellow fever
c.	Monkeypox
d.	Marburg disease
e.	Ebola

247.	How many pairs of accessory sex glands in the male mouse?

a.	3
b.	4
c.	5
d.	6
e.	7

248.	Which of the following amphibians is lacking a tongue?

a.	Ambystoma mexicanum
a.	Xenopus laevis
b.	Rana pipiens
c.	Necturus maculosus
d.	Bombina orientalis

249.	According to the National Select Agent Registry, which of the following IS NOT an overlapping select agent or toxin that is of concern to both the United States Department of Health and Human Services and the USDA?

a.	Bacillus anthracis 
b.	Coxiella burnetii 
c.	Francisella tularensis 
d.	Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis virus 
e.	Avian influenza virus (highly pathogenic) 

250.	What is the genus and species of the nonhuman primate in which both sexes have a prominent white moustache and the male has a blue scrotum?

a.	Erythrocebus patas
b.	Callithrix jacchus jacchus
c.	Saguinus mystax
d.	Cercopithecus diana
e.	Chlorocebus sp.

END OF EXAM